esic nursing question paper with answer 2016

ESIC NURSING question paper with answer 2016


ESIC nursing exam 2024
ESIC nursing exam 2024

 

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1. The size of intravenous cannula used for neonate is
(A) 24 gauze
(B) 22 gauze
(C) 20 gauze
(D) 18 gauze


2. Which of the following is not a physician
prescribed intervention?
(A) Drug administration
(B) Ordering diagnostic test
(C) Performing wound care
(D) Elevating an edematous limb


3. The practice of nursing is regulated by
37. Clinical death is also known as
(A) State nurse practice Act
(B) Institutional policies
(C) Federal guidelines & regulations
(D) International standards & Codes


4. Kusuma breathing is associated with
(A) Atelectasis
(B) Bronchial asthma
(C) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(D) Heart Failure


5. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration
is called
(A) Hyperventilation
(B) Hypoventilation
(C) Orthopnea
(D) Cheyne-strokes respiration


6. the size of the endotracheal tube for a newborn weighing 2 to 3 kg?
(A) 4.0
(B) 3.50
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.50


7. Clinical death is also known as
(A) Biological death
(B) Brain death
(C) Legal death
(D) Accidental death


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Esic nursing exam previse year question paper 2024

ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper Answers


8. Treatment of severe dehydration is
(A) Start DNS immediately
(B) Start colloids immediately
(C) Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
(D) Combination of 5% dextrose with
Ringer’s Lactate immediately


9. Common problem after perforation of
appendix
(A) Hemorrhage
(B) Peritonitis
(C) PID
(D) Intestinal obstruction


10. Linear burrowing of a mite at finger webs, wrists, elbow, ankles and penis is seen in condition of
(A) Scabies
(B) Impetigo
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Harper zoster


11. Deep vein thrombosis renders a person at a high risk of??
(A) Pulmonary embolism
(B) Shock
(C) Stroke
(D) Heart attack


12. CPR & defibrillation should be initiated in condition of arrhythmia in patient
(A) Atrioventricular block
(B) Premature Ventricular contraction
(C) Atrial fibrillation
(D) Ventricular fibrillation


13. Severe dyspnea, orthopnea, pallor, tachycardia and frothy blood tinged sputum is mostly found in
(A) Left heart failure
(B) Right heart failure
(C) Pulmonary edema
(D) Congestive heart failure.


14. An early manifestation of laryngeal cancer is
(A) Stomatitis
(B) Hoarseness
(C) Dysphagia
(D) Airway obstruction


15. Paradoxical respiration is mostly common in
(A) Flail chest
(B) Obstructive airway disease
(C) Cardiac tamponade
(D) Congestive heart failure


16. An early indication for development of hypocalcemia is
(A) Memory changes
(B) Tingling sensation in the fingers
(C) Ventricular dysrhythmias
(D) Depressed reflexes


17. The life span of human platelets is
(A) 10-12 minutes
(B) 10-12 hours
(C) 10-12 days
(D) 10-12 months


18. The life span of human RBCs is
(A) 120 minutes
(B) 120 hours
(C) 120 days
(D) 120 months


19. The human blood cells are enucleated
(A) RBC
(B) WBC
(C) Platelets
(D) Both RBC & Platelets


20. A patient with liver fail having edema is most likely to receive
(A) Diuretics
(B) Laxatives
(C) Antidiuretics
(D) Beta blockers


21. The drug of choice for methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is
(A) Clindamycin
(B) Viomycin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Gentamycin


22. Which of the following antitubercular medication has the side effect of peripheral neuritis?
(A) Pyrazinamide
(B) Isoniazid
(C) Rifampicin
(D) Ethambutol


23. A patient came to hospital with unconscious and pin point pupil, lacrimation and history of substance abuse. Which drug to be administered to him ?
(A) Naloxone
(B) Lorazepam
(C) Flumazenil
(D) Naltrexone


24. A patient with DVT is advised Low Molecular Heparin. At which site, the nurse should administer this ?
(A) Oral
(B) IM
(C) IV
(D) SC


25. Which drug may cause ‘Gray-baby syndrome’ ?
(A) Chloramphenicol
(B) Gentamycin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Tetracycline


26. Which of the following is not a side effect of salbutamol ?
(A) Muscle tremors
(B) Sedation
(C) Palpitation
(D) Nervousness


27. Which is the drug used for severe & complicated malaria ?
(A) Quinine
(B) Artesunate
(C) Primaquine
(D) Chloroquine


28. Antidote for heparin is
(A) Protamine sulphate
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Aminocaproic acid
(D) Amiodarone


29. The values of Correlation Coefficient varies between
(A)–0.5 to +0.5
(B)–0.75 to +0.75
(C) < –1.0 to < +1.0
(D) None of these


30. The constant presence of a disease within a given geographical area is called as
(A) Sporadic
(B) Epidemic
(C) Endemic
(D) Pandemic


31. Kolpik’s spots are clinical feature of
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Pertussis
(C) Cholera
(D) Measles


32. Which of the following is is not constant of vital statistics?
(A) Birth rate
(B) Morbidity & Mortality rate
(C) Educational rate
(D) Life expectancy


33. Route of administration of PPD for Tuberculin Test is
(A) SC
(B) ID
(C) IM
(D) IV


34. The first referral level in the health care
system is
(A) Primary Health Care
(B) Secondary Health care
(C) Tertiary Health Care
(D) Primordial Health Care


35. Housefly is responsible for spread of

(A) Diarrhea
(B) Dysentery
(C) Cholera
(D) All of these


36. Ripeness of cervix is assessed by
(A) Diarrhea
(B) Dysentery

(C) Cholera
(D) All of these


37. When did the Mental Health Bill became Mental Health Act ?
(A) 1912
(B) 1985
(C) 1987
(D) 1990


38. A freshly prepared ORS solution should be used within
(A) 24 hours
(B) 48 hours
(C) 12 hours
(D) 06 hours


39. Ripeness of cervix is assessed by
(A) Bishop score
(B) Apgar score
(C) Downe score
(D) New ballad score


40. Uterus is palpable at the level of symphysis at
(A) 8th week
(B) 10th week
(C) 12th week
(D) 14th week


41. Normal duration for involution of Uterus is
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks


 

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